GOD'S RELATIONSHIP WITH HUMANS - A PROTECTIVE OR ABUSIVE ONE? PART 6.

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Could it be that the inequality and oppression which women continue to confront on a daily basis. 

The Christian sermons about 'wives having to obey them husbands', 'servants their masters.'  

Have, if not their origins, then their 'religious legitimisation', in the the Christian God having used his/her/? 'divine authority' to abuse Mary and sinned against Joseph and her?

In much the same way as men continue, and, in some cases, expected, even by women, to do now. 




Which might suggest, if not affirm that, despite the attribution of the it to 'divine authority', it is really men, man, who are the power behind God.

And what would the divine abuse of Mary say about the Christian commandment that, 'thou shall not commit adultery'? 

Would it suggest that, like themselves, the Christian God was and is hypocritical?

So, considering the power imbalance between the Christian God and Joseph and Mary.  





What should we, when we examine the incident, phenomenon, if you like, rationally and in the context of  21st Century enlightenment, make of the whole situation in which God seduced Mary? 

Should we not see it for what it is; a flagrant abuse of power? And, if not, why not? 

Would it be because it is the Christian God who had decided 'to bestow Mary with this honour' of giving birth to Christ? 

What would have happened if it was the 'Devil', or a 'demon' who had used Mary as the vessel. 

To be continued!




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