BIRTH OF CHRIST AND THE TRIAL OF JEHOVAH, CHRISTIANITY'S GOD. PART 9.

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But what could have been the motive of Joseph, to come up with this explanation of attributing his wife's pregnancy to the 'Holy Ghost.'? 

Unless, unless it was the case that what really happened, was that Joseph and Mary had had premarital sex, resulting in Mary conceiving a child. 

Laying the responsibility onto 'The Holy Ghost', would have been a masterly ploy.  

Since nobody has ever seen the Holy Ghost, and would therefore be unble to seek 'His' account.  




Of what, if any, involvement he had in what would have been a conspiracy to cover up the truth of what actually took place. 

In modern day parlance, an act of adultery between God, or the 'Holy Ghost' or 'Spirit of God', and Mary Magdalene, the wife of Joseph. 

Or, even worse, the rape of Mary Magdalene by God. Either what occurred between Mary and 'The Holy Ghost', using modern day language and description of sexual relations between a man and a woman. 

Or, even a man and a man, or a woman and a woman. Was consensual or it was not consensual. 

To be continued!






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